Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 13:32
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What might be the social consequences of an ethnic as opposed to a civic conception of the nation?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
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What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Why is my ex still keeping in touch with me even though she dumped me?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.